what did jesus mean by i have not come to destroy the law but to fulfill them
Quick answer: Jesus, by the word "fulfill," meant that he would confirm and complete the prophetic and typological parts of the Law and Prophets. Therefore, (as nigh Christians will admit) some jots and tittles of the law have passed away -- but by no ways all of the law. Jesus came neither to abolish the police, nor to preserve every jot of it unchanged until the stop of time.
Most Christians are familiar with Jesus' Sermon on the Mount. But they oftentimes do not realize the importance of Jesus' introductory words:
17 "Do not remember that I came to cancel the Police force or the Prophets. I did non come up to abolish, but to fulfill. eighteen For truly, I tell you lot, until heaven and earth pass away, not fifty-fifty one jot or one tittle shall in any way pass abroad from the law, until all things are achieved. nineteen Whoever, therefore, shall interruption ane of these least commandments, and teach others to do and so, shall be called least in the Kingdom of Heaven..." (Matt. five:17-19)
Jesus was making it clear at the beginning of his sermon: nothing he was near to say should exist interpreted equally setting bated or abolishing the law. He said "I did not come to abolish [the law]...". This statement was necessary, because Jews in the first century, who had just heard the false teachings of the Pharisees (based upon the then-chosen "Oral law"), might think that Jesus was somehow making void God's written constabulary. But he was only making void the Pharisees' false manipulations of the constabulary (e.chiliad. Matt. 15:3ff).
Greg Bahnsen wrote an unabridged chapter in his book Theonomy in Christian Ethics on the above scripture passage. The affiliate was titled: "The Constant Validity of the Police force in Exhaustive Item (Matthew v:17-19)." (Bahnsen, Theonomy in Christian Ethics, 41) In that location is a lot of value in Dr. Bahnsen's discussion of the passage, and it is definitely worth reading. Dr. Bahnsen summarized the various approaches to the give-and-take "fulfill" as follows:
There take been a variety of suggested senses for "fulfill" in this passage. Does information technology point that Jesus puts an end to,45 replaces,46 supplements (adds to),47 intends to actively obey,48 enforce,49 or confirms and restores the law? (Bahnsen, Theonomy in Christian Ideals, 54-55)
Dr. Bahnsen discussed each of these options in detail. Ultimately, he argued that "fulfill" should be understood as meaning both "ostend" and "establish" (in directly antithesis to the discussion "abolish" earlier in the verse).(Bahnsen, 68-73) One of the implications of Dr. Bahnsen's view is that the police force remains binding -- even in the New Covenant -- in "exhaustive detail" (thus his chapter title). He wrote:
It is hard to imagine how Jesus could have more intensely affirmed that every flake of the police remains binding in the gospel age. (Bahnsen, Theonomy in Christian Ideals, 76)
Co-ordinate to Dr. Bahnsen, the jots and tittles of the law remain binding until the terminate of the "physical universe":
Christ ... states that the law volition remain valid at least as long as the physical universe lasts, that is, until the cease of the age or world. ... [W]hen we do take into account the bodily ending of sky and earth we see that Scripture teaches information technology to exist at the return of Christ .... At least until that betoken the details of the law will remain. ... Παρέλθῃ is used twice in this verse: start of the physical universe, and second of the smallest details of God'south constabulary. (Bahnsen, Theonomy in Christian Ideals, 79-eighty)
I volition offer a different understanding of Jesus' give-and-take "fulfill" than Dr. Bahnsen. To continue this essay manageably brusque, I will interact just minimally with what he wrote. I will bear witness that Jesus, by the word "fulfill," meant that he would confirm and consummate the prophetic and typological parts of the law and prophets. Therefore, some jots and tittles of the police force accept passed away -- but by no means all. Jesus came neither to cancel the law, nor to preserve every typological jot of it until the end of time.
Jesus confirmed and completed the Law and Prophets
Jesus says that he came to fulfill two things: the Constabulary and the Prophets. Most people who have read Matthew'due south gospel understand what Jesus meant when he said "fulfill" "the Prophets." In fact, this is a recurring "fulfillment" theme in the gospel of Matthew:
15 and he was in that location until the death of Herod, that it might be fulfilled the thing having been spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying, "Out of Egypt I called My Son." (Matt. ii:15)
Jesus' mission as Messiah fulfilled many Sometime Testament prophecies, and Matthew is constantly pointing out when this happened (Matt. 1:22; 2:17,23; 4:14; eight:17; 12:17; 13:35; 21:4; 26:54,56; 27:9). As Jesus fulfilled these prophecies, he achieved two additional things:
- He confirmed that the prophecy was true. [Come across, for example, Luke 24:25-26.]
- He completed the prophecy.
With respect to number ii above: by completing the prophecy, Jesus besides ensured that information technology never needed to be fulfilled again. And so, for example, one time we recognize that the co-operative from the root of Jesse has already come (see Isaiah 11:1-ten, quoted in Rom. xv:12), we do not continue examining the future generations of Jesse for additional branches. The prophecy accomplished God'due south purpose and is at present consummate.
What about the law, though? Did Jesus "consummate" the Law in the aforementioned style, ensuring that it would never need to exist fulfilled once more?
Yes -- just only parts of the Law. In that location are two major means in which Jesus "fulfilled" the Law:
- Jesus confirmed and completed sure specific prophecies in the Law by causing them to come true.
- Jesus confirmed and completed the typology embedded inside certain parts of the law (e.g. sacrificial), manifesting himself as the "trunk"/antitype to which the "shadow"/type of the law was pointing.
Allow's have a closer await at these two aspects.
Jesus completed specific prophecies in the Law
Fortunately for interpreters of Matt. five:17, Jesus told his disciples (and usa) exactly how he meant the discussion fulfill:
44 and [Jesus] said to them, "These are the words which I spoke to you, being yet with you, that it is necessary to be fulfilled all the things having been written in the Police of Moses, and the Prophets, and Psalms, concerning me." (Luke 24:44)
"All of the things written in the Law of Moses ... concerning me" refers to specific prophecies (and prophetic typologies, equally I testify in the next section) that were embedded in "the Constabulary of Moses" (the phrase references Joshua 8:34, and means the Torah of Genesis through Deuteronomy) which predicted the person and work of the coming Messiah.
D. A. Carson, commenting on Matt. 5:17-nineteen, writes:
The best interpretation of these difficult verses says that Jesus fulfills the Law and the Prophets in that they point to him, and he is their fulfillment… Therefore we give pleroo ('fulfill') exactly the same significant every bit in the formula quotations, which in the prologue (Matt i-ii) have already laid great stress on the prophetic nature of the OT and the way information technology points to Jesus. Even OT events take this prophetic significance (see on 2:15). A picayune later on Jesus insists that 'all the Prophets and the Law prophesied' (xi:13). The mode of the prophetic foreshadowing varies. The Exodus, Matthew argues (2:fifteen), foreshadows the calling out of Egypt of God's 'son.' (Carson, Matthew [Expositors Bible Commentary])
Jesus was telling people that he came to "fulfill" (as in "achieve what was prophesied") all the unfulfilled prophesies which were in both "the Law and the Prophets." Christians don't often recall nearly "the Police" as a textual genre that contains prophecy, but there is lots of prophecy in the Law, not just "the Prophets." Here are iii of import prophecies from the Police force which Jesus fulfilled.
1. Jesus was the prophet like Moses
The campaigner Peter, speaking before the people in Acts iii, quoted from a prophecy in Deut. 18:18-19:
20 and [YHWH] may send the one having been foreappointed to you, Christ Jesus, 21 whom information technology is necessary for heaven, indeed, to receive -- up to times of a restoration of all things, of which God spoke through the oral cavity of all his holy prophets from the age. 22 For Moses, indeed, said to the fathers -- the Lord our God will raise up a prophet to you from among your brothers, similar to me; yous will hear him according to all things, as many as he may speak to you; 23 and it will be, every soul that may not hear that prophet will exist utterly destroyed from among the people; (Acts 3:20-23)
2. Jesus was the promised "seed" of Abraham
Right later on Peter spoke the above, he said:
25 You lot are the sons of the prophets, and of the covenant which God covenanted with our fathers, saying to Abraham: "And in your seed will be blessed all the families of the world;" 26 God, having raised up his child Jesus, sent him to you first, blessing you, in the turning away of each one from your evil means. (Acts 3:25-26)
The apostle Paul also confirmed that this was the proper interpretation of that hope:
16 And to Abraham were the promises spoken, and to his seed; he doesn't say, "And to seeds," every bit of many, but every bit of ane, "And to your seed," which is Christ; (Gal. three:sixteen)
three. Jesus was the lion of the tribe of Judah
2 and I saw a strong affections proclaiming in a loud voice, "Who is worthy to open up the scroll and to loose the seals of it?" 3 and no one was able in the sky to a higher place, nor upon the earth, nor under the earth, to open the roll, nor to behold information technology. 4 And I was weeping much, because no i was found worthy to open up the scroll, nor to behold it. 5 And one of the elders says to me, "Do non weep; behold, the Panthera leo, the 1 from the tribe of Judah, the root of David, did conquer, the ane opening the scroll, and the seven seals of it." (Rev. 5:2-5)
The above is a reference to the following prophecy in the Law:
9 Judah is a king of beasts's cub. From the prey, my son, yous accept gone upwardly. He stooped down, he crouched as a panthera leo, as a lioness. Who volition rouse him up? ten The scepter will not depart from Judah, Nor the ruler's staff from between his anxiety, until Shiloh comes. To him will the obedience of the peoples be. (Gen. 49:9-x)
There are many of other prophecies in the Law which Jesus fulfilled (such as the Song of Moses), merely the 3 above are enough to establish the point.
Jesus completed the typology of the police
Certain Sinai Covenant laws (e.g. the sacrificial ones) prefigured the work of Christ. This function of prefiguring is called "typology." In theological report, the word "type" (Greek: τύπος -- often translated "pattern") is a label for something which is an abstracted (simplified) representation of the existent thing (which comes later on). The existent thing which comes subsequently is labeled the "antitype" (Greek: ἀντίτυπος, see ane Pet. 3:21). Yous might also have heard these chosen "shadows," as the apostle Paul does in Col. 2:17. The type corresponds to the antitype, just as a shadow cast by someone'southward torso is an bathetic representation of that body. Thus, Paul says "the body is of Christ" (Col. 2:17). This metaphorical "shadow" of Christ is cast back into many parts of the Hebrew Scriptures, and nosotros see it well-nigh often in the sacrificial laws.
For example, the campaigner Paul wrote:
7 cleanse out the old leaven, in order that you may be a new lump, according as you are unleavened. For likewise our Passover, Christ, was sacrificed on our behalf, 8 so that we may keep the feast, not with sometime leaven, nor with the leaven of evil and wickedness, simply with unleavened bread of sincerity and truth. (1 Cor. v:7-8)
Jesus was the antitype to which the type of the Passover lamb pointed. On this understanding, once the reality (Christ and his once-for-all sacrifice) has been achieved, the original blazon/blueprint/shadow either no longer exists, or -- if it does still be -- its original role is no longer necessary; thus, we must treat the blazon/pattern/shadow differently than nosotros did earlier. We no longer sacrifice a lamb on Passover as the law required (Num. ix:ane-3).
When the campaigner Paul wrote the post-obit:
4 For Christ is the end (τέλος) of the police for righteousness to everyone believing, (Rom. ten:4)
Paul was non suggesting (contrary to Jesus' own words in Matt. five:17) that Christ "ended" (every bit in abolished) the whole constabulary. The Greek word which Paul used is telos, (from which we get our term "teleology"). Information technology tin can mean either "temporal end" or "goal." No matter which of these translation options we accept, it fits with Jesus' purpose of fulfilling the law by completing its typological/didactic purpose:
- Christ was the temporal cease of many of the sacrificial laws which foreshadowed his in one case-for-all sacrifice. These laws were covenantally-spring, and are no longer binding.
- Christ was the final goal of the police force, which pointed towards his finished work in many ways.
Every bit another instance, Jesus' own priesthood abolished the laws which related to the Levitical priests. There are no Levitical priests in the New Covenant. When the Sinai Covenant ended in A.D. seventy, the Levitical priest regulations were abolished with it.
The typological goal of the law is what Paul was referring to when he wrote:
23 And before the coming of the faith, we were beingness guarded under constabulary, having been shut up to the organized religion about to exist unveiled, 24 then that the police became our child-tutor -- to Christ, in gild that by faith we may be declared-righteous, 25 and the faith having come up, we are no longer nether a child-tutor; (Gal. 3:23-25)
As a tutor, the typological law led God's people toward a goal, preparing them for the coming final work of the Messiah. The tutorial laws which Paul says "nosotros are no longer under" are the covenantally-bound laws (like the typological laws), because Jesus completed them and made them obsolete.
All things are accomplished?
In one case we have established what Jesus meant by "fulfill," we tin can understand what he meant by a particular clause in the side by side verse (xviii): "until all things are accomplished." Notice that the verbal same phrase is used in the following verse:
this generation volition non laissez passer abroad until all things are accomplished. (Luke 21:32)
This verse in Luke is a parallel verse to Matt. 24:34.
Without going too much into the eschatology (which others, such as Gary Demar, have already written extensively on), I will only affirm that the words "this generation," in the Gospels, always means the generation of people to whom Jesus was speaking. These are the people who were alive circa A.D. 30. This is a mainstream preterist interpretation, which you tin find in many commentaries.
Therefore, we can know with certainty that "all things" (whatever that phrase specifically refers to) would be "accomplished" by the end of the showtime century. Jesus was evidently not saying "until all things that will ever happen are accomplished." He clearly intended the phrase "all things" to take a telescopic of meaning limited to the first century "generation."
We know that Jesus came to fulfill/complete many Old Testament prophecies and to fulfill/complete certain laws past means of his final, finished sacrifice. Therefore, when he says "until all things are accomplished" (five. 18) in the context of "fulfilling" the Police and the Prophets, we can reasonably limit the reference of this phase to: "until all things prophesied or foreshadowed in both the Law and the Prophets are achieved."
A chiasm of fulfillment
But if Jesus did cause some of the laws to "pass away," and so what are we to make of that other part of his claim: "until sky and earth pass away, ..."? All of these phrases must exist treated together, because they form an interlocking chiasm of meaning:
A until the sky and the earth laissez passer away,
B one jot or one tittle may by no means pass from the law
A' until all things are accomplished.
[A chiasm is a common Biblical literary structure which uses forms of repetition and structural reversal for emphasis.]
Clearly, the central clause (B) of this chiasm is dependent upon both the commencement (A) and third (A') clauses. Dr. Bahnsen himself made this signal:
Ηως ἂν πάντα γένηται states unconditionally "until all things have taken place (are past)." Thus this phrase is functionally equivalent to "until sky and globe laissez passer away." These two ἕως clauses parallel (a mutual literary device) and explicate each other. (Bahnsen, Theonomy in Christian Ethics, 83)
I completely concord with Dr. Bahnsen's claim above. Nosotros must allow these ἕως clauses each to inform and explicate our interpretation of the other. I have already made the case that the second clause ought to be interpreted in the lite of how Jesus used these words in Luke 21:32. If "all things" (which Jesus was intending to fulfill) were going to be fulfilled before that generation passed abroad, then how do we understand "heaven and earth"?
Let's work backwards, using logic. Here is a syllogism:
- No jots and tittles of the police force will pass away before heaven and earth pass abroad.
- Some jots and tittles of the law have passed away.
- Therefore, heaven and earth have passed abroad.
The above syllogism is logically valid. Premise #one is scripturally certain (rephrased from Matt. 5:xviii). What about premise #two?
Jots and tittles take passed away
We all recognize that certain jots and tittles of the law take passed away. No Christian should dispute this fact. For example:
- We practice not circumcise our male babies on the 8th day of life, every bit the law required: Lev. 12:3.
- We do non consider ourselves to exist unclean when nosotros eat pork: Lev. 11:vii-8.
- Nosotros practice not search for a Levitical priest (or whatever kind of priest) to make up one's mind whether an ulceration on our skin requires us to be quarantined: Lev. 13:2-3.
- We do not teach women that they should consider themselves to be ritually "unclean" for eighty days after birthing a girl: Lev. 12:five.
Most Christians neither detect nor teach others to observe these laws, because they were spring to the Sinai Covenant and have now passed away. In Theonomy In Christian Ethics, Dr. Bahnsen himself discusses a law which was "annulled" past the New Covenant:
The Levitical priesthood, representing the Mosaic organization of formalism redemption, could non bring perfection and then was intended to be superseded (Heb. 7:11 f., 28). ... when Jesus instituted a change in the priesthood (for He was of the tribe of Judah, not Levi) the ceremonial principle was altered also.... The one-time commandment with reference to formalism matters was ready bated, so, in order that God'south people might have a better hope.... The commandment which was anulled was "a commandment with respect to the mankind" (i.east. concerning external qualification of physical descent of the priests....). (Bahnsen, Theonomy in Christian Ethics, 206).
Of grade, Dr. Bahnsen suggests that this "anulling" of priestly qualification was "implied in Psalm 110:1,4," therefore he does not consider it to be a contradiction with his interpretation of Matt. five:17f (Bahnsen, Theonomy in Christian Ethics, 206-207). But this "fulfillment" of the police is exactly what Jesus was talking virtually in Matt. 5:17-19. The changeover to the New Covenant required a alter in the covenantally-bound portions of the police, only equally the writer of Hebrews wrote in Heb. 7:11.
In a volume on theonomy published subsequently, Dr. Bahnsen again admitted that "parts of the police force accept been laid aside or altered":
Jesus is the i who spoke nigh chiselled and exhaustive support for the constabulary - down to the least commandment. It is also the word of Jesus elsewhere which gives u.s. our theological justification for maxim parts of the police have been laid aside or contradistinct. At that place is nothing illegitimate or unique most our Lord teaching by means of sweeping declarations which are given particular qualifications later. (Bahnsen, No Other Standard, 324n37)
It is therefore evident from "later" scripture that Jesus fulfilled the law by confirming and completing certain parts. When these parts were consummate, they were "laid aside." We are not jump to do the parts of the law which take been "anulled" and "laid bated" (using Dr. Bahnsen's terms). We are not to teach them equally being binding. These laws are the jots and tittles which have passed away.
Sky and globe passed away?
What about #3 above (the conclusion of our syllogism)? How tin "heaven and earth" have passed abroad? Kickoff, we should note that this is not a effigy of spoken communication meaning "never." Jesus himself affirmed:
34 Truly I say to you, this generation may by no means pass abroad till all these things are accomplished. 35 The heaven and the earth will laissez passer abroad, but my words may by no means laissez passer away. (Matt. 24:34-35)
And so nosotros know that "heaven and earth" could (and would) pass abroad. Nosotros also know that our syllogism in a higher place is logically valid. We know that the first 2 premises are true. Therefore the truth of the decision is logically necessary. But in what sense have "heaven and earth passed away"?
The answer is that Jesus was using symbolic language (every bit he sometimes did), and he was referring to the destruction of the Second Temple and the abolishment of the Sinai Covenant in A.D. 70 (before that generation passed away). This is where it helps to know something about 2nd Temple Jewish terminology, and the historian Josephus is our all-time reference for this. It turns out that Jews of that fourth dimension actually used the phrase "heaven and globe" to refer to the structure of the tabernacle (and later on the temple). Josephus wrote:
this proportion of the measures of the tabernacle proved to be an imitation of the system of the world; for that third part thereof which was within the four pillars, to which the priests where not admitted, is, equally it were, a heaven peculiar to God. Only the infinite of the xx cubits is, equally it were, country [ge, too translatable as 'earth'] and sea, on which men live, and so this part is peculiar to the priests merely....When Moses distinguished the tabernacle into three parts, and allowed two of them to the priests, every bit a identify accessible and mutual, he denoted the state and the sea, these being of general access to all; simply he gear up apart the 3rd division for God, considering sky is inaccessible to men." (Jewish Antiquities, 3.half dozen.four[123], 3.7.7[181])
[Other gimmicky references are listed in (Fletcher-Louis, "Jesus, the Temple and the Dissolution of Heaven and Earth", 126)]
Crispin Fletcher-Louis writes:
In the last 20 years there has been widespread recognition that in both the biblical and post-biblical periods the Temple is invested with a set of cosmological meanings: the Temple stands at the centre of the universe; it is the identify from which creation began; it is the meeting point of heaven and world -- the 'Gate of Heaven'; it is the identify where, at the stop of days, as at the dawn of creation, the forces of chaos would be defeated and, most importantly for our purposes, it is a miniature version of the whole universe -- a microcosm of heaven and earth. (Fletcher-Louis, "Jesus, the Temple and the Dissolution of Heaven and Globe", Apocalyptic in History and Tradition, 123)
Fletcher-Louis also relates Matt. five:18 to Matt. 24:35 in the following way:
At that place are, I advise, three interlocking referents in the expression 'until heaven and globe pass away' at v:18d: (1) the devastation of the Jerusalem temple in AD 70 confirming the obsolescence of the Old Covenant; (2) Jesus' expiry and resurrection confirming the establishment of the New Covenant and its messianic Torah; (iii) Jesus' life, ministry building and teaching as the embodiment of the new creation and the setting-up of the messianic Torah which His new community follows.
...
It seems at present that when the close parallel to Matthew 5:18 at 24:35 refers to the passing abroad of sky and earth and endurance of Jesus' words, the first of the three referents in the former text is to the forefront. With the temple cult gone, Jewish Christians should non feel its loss since they nevertheless had Jesus' teaching. (Fletcher-Louis, "The destruction of the temple and the relativization of the Old Covenant", `The reader must understand': Eschatology in Bible and theology, 163)
It is reasonable to conclude that Jesus was speaking using the symbolic terms in use at that time: that when he said "heaven and earth" he was speaking of the temple, and using information technology as a metonym for the Sinai Covenant (of which the temple was the primal feature).
This identification between the phrase "heaven and globe" and the Sinai Covenant is not a modern theological novelty. For case, here is what the Puritan theologian John Owen wrote near this phrase, every bit used by Peter in 2 Peter three:
On this foundation I affirm, that the heavens and earth here intended in this prophecy of Peter, the coming of the Lord, the day of judgment and perdition of ungodly men, mentioned in the destruction of that sky and globe, do all of them relate, not to the last and concluding judgment of the world, but to that utter desolation and destruction that was to be made of the Judaical church and state. (Owen, Works, vol. 9, p. 134)
Notice the following parallel betwixt Matt. 5:eighteen and Jesus prophesying the devastation of the temple and Jerusalem in Mark thirteen (parallels in Matt. 24 and Luke 21):
Matthew 5:xviii | Mark 13:xxx-31 | |
---|---|---|
"truly I say to you, until the heaven and the world laissez passer away, one jot or one tittle may past no means laissez passer abroad from the law, until all things are accomplished." | "Truly I say to you lot, that this generation may by no means pass abroad till all these things are accomplished; the heaven and the globe volition pass away, but my words may past no ways pass away." |
Jesus affirmed that "the heaven and the globe will laissez passer abroad" in the aforementioned context as the destruction of the temple and Jerusalem. Some commentators want to carve up these verses into the "already" and "not however", because they are presupposing that Jesus must be talking about the literal, physical "heaven and world." But if he was just using a standard Jewish symbolic term for the temple ("heaven and world") as a metonym for the Sinai Covenant, then everything else fits perfectly with Matt. five:17-nineteen.
We tin thus conclude that Jesus:
- fulfilled (confirmed and completed) all of the typologies and prophecies in the Law and the Prophets (Matt. 5:18)
- made provision for State of israel's remnant and the gentiles in the New Covenant (Luke 22:20)
- returned in judgment of Israel in A.D. 70, causing the Second Temple to be destroyed (Matt. 24:two), and thus
- abolished the Sinai Covenant (Heb. 8:xiii), without abolishing the law completely (Matt. v:17)
- accomplished all this within the lives of "that generation" (exactly as he prophesied in Luke 21:32, Mark 13:30, Matt. 24:34).
New heavens and earth means "new creation." In other words:
17 Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation. The quondam things have passed away. Behold, all things have become new. (2 Cor. 5:17)
John Owen likewise understood the "new heavens and new earth" to be fulfilled right now. He wrote:
Now, when shall this be that God volition create these "new heavens and new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness?" Saith Peter, "It shall be after the coming of the Lord, after that judgment and devastation of ungodly men, who obey not the gospel, that I foretell." But now it is evident, from this identify of Isaiah, with chapter 66:21–22, that this is a prophecy of gospel times only; and that the planting of these new heavens is nix only the creation of gospel ordinances, to suffer for always. The same affair is and then expressed in Hebrews 12:26–28." (Owen, Works, vol. 9, p. 135)
The "New Creation" is already hither. Jesus is our current, reigning King (just as prophesied in Dan. two:44); the laws which weren't covenantally-bound continue to be bounden, just every bit God intended; and we have two simultaneous, ongoing commissions: to subdue the earth (Gen. 1:28), and to preach the Gospel of the current Kingdom (Matt. 28:xviii).
Source: http://biblicallaw.org/content/how-did-jesus-fulfill-law-matt-517-19
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